Online Test Series -2021

Q 1.

The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

\(1\over3\)

\(2\over3\)

\(2\over5\)

\(2\over7\)

Q 2.

A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27ºC two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27ºC is

350 m/s

300 m/s

339 m/s

330 m/s

Q 3.

An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

30 cm away from the mirror

36 cm away from the mirror

30 cm towards the mirror

36 cm towards the mirror

Q 4.

The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

6.25%

20%

26.8%

12.5%

Q 5.

The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

0.138 H

138.88 H

1.389 H

13.89 H

Q 6.

Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

\(250\Omega\)

\(500\Omega\)

\(25\Omega\)

\(40\Omega\)

Q 7.

A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

Q 8.

In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

\(\overline{A.B}\)

\(A.\overline{B}+\overline{A}.B\)

\(\overline{A.B}+A .B\)

\(\overline{A+B}\)

Q 9.

In the circuit show in the figure, the input voltage \(V_i\) is 20 \(V,\:V_{BE}\) = 0 and \(V_{CE}\) = 0. The values of \(I_B,I_C\) and \(\beta\) are given by

\(I_B=20 \:\mu A,\:I_C=5\:mA,\: \beta=250\)

\(I_B=40\:\mu A,\;IC=5\:mA,\;\beta=125\)

\(I_B=25\,\mu A,\;I_C=5\;mA,\;\beta=200\)

\(I_B=40\,\mu A,\;I_C=10\;mA,\;\beta=250\)

Q 10.

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination \(\theta\) as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and \(\theta\) for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

\

\(a={g\over cosec\theta}\)

\(a={g\over sin\theta}\)

\(a={g\;cos\theta}\)

\(a=g\;tan\theta\)

Q 11.

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

\(2\;s\)

\(1\;s\)

\(\pi\;s\)

\(2\pi\;s\)

Q 12.

The moment of the force, \(F=4\hat{i}=5\hat{j}-6\hat{k}\) at \((2,\;0,\;-3)\), abiut the point \((2,\;-2,\;-2),\) is give by

\(-7\hat{i}-8\hat{j}-4\hat{k}\)

\(-4\hat{i}-\hat{j}-8\hat{k}\)

\(-8\hat{i}-4\hat{j}-7\hat{k}\)

\(-7\hat{i}-4\hat{j}-8\hat{k}\)

Q 13.

A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

0.8

0.25

0.5

0.4

Q 14.

A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

0.053 cm

0.525 cm

0.521 cm

0.529 cm

Q 15.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

Q 16.

Figure shows a circuit contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current 'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is

2mA

0.2 A

2A

0 ampere

Q 17.

A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k'. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k'' : k'' is

\(1:6\)

\(1:9\)

\(1:11\)

\(1:14\)

Q 18.

Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:

Keep floating at the same distance between them

Move towards each other

Move away from each other

Will become stationary

Q 19.

A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because the method involves :

Cells

Potential gradients

A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer

A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances

Q 20.

Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index '\(\mu\)'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

\(i=sin^{-1} \Bigg({1\over {\mu}}\Bigg)\)

\(Refelected\;light\;is\;polarised\;with\;its\\\;electric\;vector\;perpendicular\;to\;tje\;plane\;\\of\;incidence\)

\(Reflected\;light\;is\;polarised\;with\;its\\electric\;vector\;parallel\;to\;the\;plane\\of\;incidence\)

\(i=tan^{-1} \Bigg({1\over{\mu}}\Bigg)\)

Q 21.

A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of \(O_2\) and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

4 RT

15 RT

9 RT

11 RT

Q 22.

An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

Large focal length and large diameter

Large focal length and small diameter

Small focal length and large diameter

Small focal length and small diameter

Q 23.

One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

\(T\)

\(T={mv^{2}\over I}\)

\(T-{mv^2\over I}\)

\(Zero\)

Q 24.

The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are \(x=5t-2t^2\) and \(y = 10t\) respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at \(t = 2\) s is

\(0\)

\(5\;{m/s^2}\)

\(-4\;m/s^2\)

\(-8\;m/s^2\)

Q 25.

Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]

350 Hz

361 Hz

411 Hz

448 Hz

Q 26.

A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

\(10 : 7 \)

\(5 : 7 \)

\(7 : 10 \)

\(2 : 5 \)

Q 27.

In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 k\(\Omega\). If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k\(\Omega\), the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is

\(200\;and\;1000\)

\(15\;and\;200\)

\(150\;and\;15000\)

\(20\;and\;2000\)

Q 28.

Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed \(\omega \) about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

\(W_B>W_A>W_C\)

\(W_A>W_B>W_C\)

\(W_C>W_B>W_A \)

\(W_A>W_C>W_B\)

Q 29.

Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the folowing diagram.

Match the following
Column-1 Column-2

P. Process I a. Asiabatic

Q. Process II b. Isobaric

R. Process III c. Isochoric

S. Process IV d. Isothermal

\(P\;\rightarrow a,\;Q\rightarrow c,\;R\rightarrow d,\;S\rightarrow b\)

\(P\rightarrow c,\;Q\rightarrow a,\;R\rightarrow d,\;S\rightarrow b \)

\(P\rightarrow c,\;Q\rightarrow d,\;R\rightarrow b,\;S\rightarrow a\)

\(P\rightarrow d,\;Q\rightarrow b,\;R\rightarrow a,\;S\rightarrow c\)

Q 30.

A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

\({7\over5}D\)

\(D\)

\({3\over2}D\)

\({5\over4}D\)

Q 31.

A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system

\(Increases \;by \;a \;factor \;of\;4 \)

\(Decreases\; by \;a \;factor \;of \;2 \)

\(Remains\; the\; same \)

\(Increases\; by \;a\; factor\; of \;2\)

Q 32.

For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

\(30\)

\(10\)

\(20\)

\(15\)

Q 33.

A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that
can be formed out of c, G and \(e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) is [c is velocity
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]

\({1\over c^2}\Big[G{e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_0}}\Big]^{1\over{2}}\)

\(c^2\)\(\Big[G{e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_0}}\Big]^{1\over{2}}\)

\({1\over{c^2}}\Big[G{e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_0}}\Big]^{1\over{2}}\)

\({1\over c}G{e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_0}}\)

Q 34.

A Carnot engine having an efficiency of \(1\over{10}\)
as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

\(1J\)

\(90J\)

\(99J\)

\(100J\)

Q 35.

Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + \(\bigtriangleup\)e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then \(\bigtriangleup\)e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen \(m_h=1.67\times10^{-27}\,kg\)]

\(10^{-20}\;C\)

\(10^{-23}\;C\)

\(10^{-37}\;C\)

\(10^{-47}\;C\)

Q 36.

The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

\(12.5\;cm\)

\(8\;cm\)

\(13.2\;cm\)

\(16\;cm\)

Q 37.

Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ?

Q 38.

At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) \(=2.76\times10^{-26}\;kg\) Boltzmann's constant \(k_B=1.38\times10^{-23}\;JK^{-1}\))

\(5.016\times10^4 K\)

\(8.360\times10^4\;K\)

\(2.508\times10^4K\)

\(1.254\times10^4 K\)

Q 39.

The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is

\(h\over{\sqrt{mkT}}\)

\(h\over{\sqrt{3mkT}}\)

\(2h\over{\sqrt{3mkT}}\)

\(2h\over{\sqrt{mkT}}\)

Q 40.

A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k\(\Omega\) is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

Q 41.

The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is

\(2\)

\(1\)

\(4\)

\(0.5\)

Q 42.

An electron of mass m with an initial velocity \(\overrightarrow V=V_0 \hat i\;(V_0>0)\) enters an electric field \(\overrightarrow E=-E_0\hat i(E_0=\;constant\;>0)\)
constant > 0) at t = 0. If \(\lambda_0\) is its
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

\(\lambda_0t\)

\(\lambda_0\Big(1+{e E_0 t\over{mV_0}}\Big)\)

\(\lambda_0\over\Big({1+{e E_0\over{mV_0}}}\Big)\)

\(\lambda_0\)

Q 43.

Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

\(1.25\)

\(1.59\)

\(1.69\)

\(1.78\)

Q 44.

A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg \(m^{-1}\) is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

\(14.76\;A\)

\(5.98\;A\)

\(7.14\;A\)

\(11.32\;A\)

Q 45.

A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

\(r^5\)

\(r^2\)

\(r^3\)

\(r^4\)

Q 46.

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

\(HNO_3,\;NH_4{CL}, \;NO,\;N_2\)

\(HNO_3,\;NO,\;NH_4{CL},\;N_2\)

\(HNO_3,\;NO,\;N_2\;NH_4{CL}\)

\(NH_{4}CL,\;N_2,\;NO,\;HNO_3\)

Q 47.

If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant \((k_f)\) will be

Doubled

Halved

Tripled

Unchanged

Q 48.

Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

\(BeCl_2, \;XeF_2\)

\(Tel_2,\,XeF_2\)

\(IBr_{2}^{-},\,XeF_2\)

\(IF_3,\,XeF_2\)

Q 49.

Which one is the most acidic compound?

Q 50.

Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

\( – NH2 > – OR > – F \)

\(– NR2 < – OR < – F \)

\(– NH2 < – OR < – F \)

\( – NR2 > – OR > – F \)

Q 51.

A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy \(\bigtriangleup U\) of the gas in joules will be

\(1136.25 J \)

\( –500 J \)

\( –505 J \)

\( +505 J \)

Q 52.

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

\(MnO_{4}^-\)

\(Cr_2O_{7}^{2-}\)

\(CrO_{4}^{2-}\)

\(MnO_{4}^{2-}\)

Q 53.

In the electrochemical cell :

\(Zn|ZnSO_4(0.01\,M)||CuSO_4(1.0\,M)|Cu,\) the emf of this Daniel cell is \(E_1\). When the concentration of \(ZnSO_4\) is changed to 1.0 M and that of \(CuSO_4\) changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to \(E_2\) ?

\((Given,{RT\over F}=0.059)\)

\( E_1 = E_2 \)

\( E_1 < E_2 \)

\( E_1 > E_2\)

\( E_2 = 0 ≠ E_1 \)

Q 54.

Which of the following is a sink for \(CO\) ?

Haemoglobin

Micro-organisms present in the soil

Oceans

Plants

Q 55.

On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

Size of the ion alone

The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

The sign of charge on the ion alone

Q 56.

The correct statement regarding electrophile is

Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile

Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Q 57.

The solubility of \(BaSO_4\) in water is \(2.42\times10^{-3}\;gL^{-1}\) at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (\(K_{sp}\)) will be

(Given molar mass of \(BaSO_4\) = \(233\;g\;mol^{-1}\))

\(1.08\times10^{-14}\;mol^2L^{-2}\)

\(1.08\times10^{-12}\;mol^2L^{-2}\)

\(1.08\times10^{-10}\;mol^2L^{-2}\)

\(1.08\times10^{-8}\;mol^2L^{-2}\)

Q 58.

For a given reaction, \(\bigtriangleup H\) = 35.5 kJ\(mol^{-1}\) and \(\bigtriangleup S\) = \(83.6\;JK^{-1}\;mol^{-1}\). The reaction is spontaneous at : (Assume that \(\bigtriangleup\;H\) and \(\bigtriangleup\;S\)do not vary with temperature

T < 425 K

T > 425 K

All temperatures

T > 298 K

Q 59.

Given van der Waals constant for\(NH_3,\;H_2,\;O_2\;and\;CO_2\) are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

\(O_2\)

\(H_2\)

\(NH_3\)

\(CO_2\)

Q 60.

Pick out the correct statement with respect

\([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}:\)

\(it\;is\;sp^3d^2\;hybridised\;and\;octahedral\)

\(it\;is\;sp^3d^2\;hybridised\;and\;tetrahedral\)

\(it\;is\;d^2sp^3\;hybridised\;and\;octahedral\)

\(it\;is\;dsp^2\;hybridised\;and\;square\;palnar\)

Q 61.

Among \(CaH_2,\;BeH_2,\;BaH_2,\) the order of ionic character is

BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2

CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2

Q 62.

Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

Carbylamine reaction

Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

Stephens reaction

Gabriels phthalimide synthesis

Q 63.

The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

Electric field present between the gas molecules

Volume of the gas molecules

Density of the gas molecules

Forces of attraction between the gas molecules

Q 64.

Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with \(CN^-\) ion. Silver is later recovered by

Liquation

Distillation

Zone refining

Displacement with Zn

Q 65.

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

a. \(60\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL+40\;mL\;{M\over{10}}NaOH\)

b. \(55\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL\;+\;45\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;NaOH\)

c. \(75\;mL \;{M\over{5}}HCL\;+\;25\;mL\;{M\over5}NaOH\)

d. \(100\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL\;+\;100\;mL{M\over{10}}NaOH\)

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

d

a

b

c

Q 66.

Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?

Na

K

Rb

Li

Q 67.

The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on \([A]_0\); the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on \([A_0]\)

The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

Q 68.

The equilibrium constants of the following are.

\(N_2\;+\;3H_2 \rightleftharpoons2NH_3\;\;\;\;K_1\)

\(N_2+O_2V\rightleftharpoons2NO\;\;\;\;K_2\)

\(H_2+{1\over2}O_2\rightarrow H_2O\;\;\;\;K_3\)

The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:

\(K_1K_3^3/K_2\)

\(K_2K_3^3/K_1\)

\(K_2K_3/K_1\)

\(K_2^3K_3/K_1\)

Q 69.

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,
\(A_2(g)=B_2(g)\rightleftharpoons X_2(g)\bigtriangleup_r=-X\;kj\;?\)

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) Low temperature and low pressure

(3) Low temperature and high pressure

(4) High temperature and low pressure

Q 70.

A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of .
\(10^{-2}\;s^{-1}\) How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

238.6 second

138.6 second

346.5 second

693.0 second

Q 71.

Consider the following species :
\(CN^+,CN,NO\;and\;CN\)
Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

\(CN^+\)

\(CN^-\)

\(NO\)

\(CN\)

Q 72.

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.

Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

Q 73.

Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

Analgesic

Antiseptic

Antipyretic

Antibiotic

Q 74.

A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. \(H_2SO_4\). The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

2.8

3.0

1.4

4.4

Q 75.

It is because of inability of \(ns^2\) electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

\(Sn^{2+}\) is reducing while \(Pb^{4+}\) is oxidising

\(Sn^{2+}\) is oxidising while \(Pb^{4+}\)is reducing

\(Sn^{2+}\) and \(Pb^{2+}\) are both oxidising and reducing

\(Sn^{4+}\) is reducing while \(Pb^{4+}\) is oxidising

Q 76.

The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions:

3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

o-bromotoluene

m-bromotoluene

p-bromotoluene

Q 77.

Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation \(sp^2,sp^2,sp,sp\) from left to right atoms?

\(CH_2=CH-CH=CH_2\)

\(CH_2=CH-C\equiv CH\)

\(HC\equiv C-C\equiv CH\)

\(CH_3-CH=CH-CH_3\)

Q 78.

With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

Both bond angle and bond length change

Both bond angles and bond length remains same

Q 79.

Which one is a wrong statement?

The electronic configuration of N atom is

An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers

Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero

The value of m for \(d_z 2\)is zero

Q 80.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Catalyst does not initiate any reaction

The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium

Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions

Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme

Q 81.

When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

Is tripled

Is doubled

Is halved

Remains unchanged

Q 82.

The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

II < III < I

III < I < II

III < II < I

II < I < III

Q 83.

The bond dissociation energies of \(X_2,\;Y_2\)and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. \(\bigtriangleup\)H for the formation of XY is \(-200\;kJ\;mol^{-1}\). The bond dissociation energy of \(X_2\) will be

\(800\;kJ\;mol^{-1}\)

\(100\;kJ\;mol^{-1}\)

\(200\;kJ\;mol^{-1}\)

\(400\;kJ\;mol^{-1}\)

Q 84.

The IUPAC name of the compound

is ________.

3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

5-formylhex-2-en-3-one

5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al

3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal

Q 85.

Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

\({3\sqrt3\over{4\sqrt2}}\)

\({4\sqrt3\over{3\sqrt2}}\)

\({\sqrt3\over{\sqrt2}}\)

\(1\over2\)

Q 86.

Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

Molality

Molarity

Mole fraction

Weight percentage

Q 87.

With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

Both bond angle and bond length change

Both bond angles and bond length remains same

Q 88.

Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Q 89.

The species, having bond angles of 120° is

\(PH_3\)

\(CIF_3 \)

\(NCl_3\)

\(BCl_3\)

Q 90.

It is because of inability of \(ns^2 \) electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

\(Sn^{2+}\) is reducing while \(Pb^{4+}\) is oxidising

\(Sn^{2+}\) is oxidising while \(Pb^{4+}\) is reducing

\(Sn^{2+}\) and \(Pb^{2+}\) are both oxidising and reducing

\(Sn^{4+}\)+ is reducing while \(Pb^{4+}\) is oxidising

Q 91.

Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

Cycas

Nostoc

Green sulphur bacteria

Chara

Q 92.

Double fertilization is

Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

Syngamy and triple fusion

Q 93.

Double fertilization is exhibited by

Gymnosperms

Algae

Fungi

Angiosperms

Q 94.

Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

Archaebacteria

Eubacteria

Cyanobacteria

Mycobacteria

Q 95.

Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

Potassium

Sodium

Magnesium

Calcium

Q 96.

Select the mismatch :

Frankia – Alnus

Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer

Rhizobium – Alfalfa

Q 97.

Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport

Only (d)

Only (a)

(a), (c) and (d)

(b) and (c)

Q 98.

The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

Heart

Stomach

Kidneys

Intestine

Q 99.

Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

–196°C

–80°C

–120°C

–160°C

Q 100.

Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

λ phage

Ti plasmid

Retrovirus

pBR 322

Q 101.

Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

Biodegradation

Biopiracy

Bio-infringement

Bioexploitation

Q 102.

What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

It functions as an electron carrier

It functions as an enzyme

It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

Q 103.

Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

Argentaffin cells

Paneth cells

Zymogen cells

Kupffer cells

Q 104.

The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of

Griffith

Hershey and Chase

Avery, Mcleod and McCarty

Hargobind Khorana

Q 105.

Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

Bacillus

Pseudomonas

Mycoplasma

Nostoc

Q 106.

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

Q 107.

Select the correct match

T.H. Morgan - Transduction

\(F_2\)× Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross

Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

G. Mendel - Transformation

Q 108.

A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

Lerma Rojo

Sharbati Sonora

Co-667

Basmati

Q 109.

Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → segregation → telophase

Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase

Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase

Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase

Q 110.

Which of the following are not polymeric?

Nucleic acids

Proteins

Polysaccharides

Lipids

Q 111.

The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as

Core zone

Buffer zone

Transition zone

Restoration zone

Q 112.

Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

T.H. Morgan : Linkage

Q 113.

Select the correct statement

Spliceosomes take part in translation

Punnett square was developed by a British scientist

Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’

Transduction was discovered by S. Altman

Q 114.

A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

Autogamy and xenogamy

Autogamy and geitonogamy

Geitonogamy and xenogamy

Cleistogamy and xenogamy

Q 115.

A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is

Pineal gland

Corpus cardiacum

Corpus luteum

Corpus allatum

Q 116.

Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select the correct option.

Column - I	Column - II
(a) Gonorrhea	(i) HIV
(b) Syphilis	(ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts	(iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS	(iv) Human Papilloma virus

a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(iv) d-(i)

a-(iii) b-(iv) c-(i) d-(ii)

a-(iv) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(i)

a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(i)

Q 117.

The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

Plant

Bacterium

Fungus

Virus

Q 118.

Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

Mango

Jackfruit

Bamboo species

Papaya

Q 119.

Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

Autoimmune response

Cell-mediated immune response

Hormonal immune response

Physiological immune response

Q 120.

Spliceosomes are not found in cells of

Plants

Fungi

Animals

Bacteria

Q 121.

An example of colonial alga is

Chlorella

Volvox

Ulothrix

Spirogyra

Q 122.

Offsets are produced by

Parthenocarpy

Mitotic divisions

Meiotic divisions

Parthenogenesis

Q 123.

Select the correct match

Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum and F. Stahl

Alfred Hershey and - TMV Martha Chase

Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae

Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Jacques Monod

Q 124.

Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?

Equidae

Perissodactyla

Caballus

Ferus

Q 125.

Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?

Lysosome

Ribosome

Chloroplast

Mitochondrion

Q 126.

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

Oil content

Cellulosic intine

Pollenkitt

Sporopollenin

Q 127.

Natality refers to

Number of individuals leaving the habitat

Birth rate

Death rate

Number of individuals entering a habitat

Q 128.

The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called

Upstream processing

Downstream processing

Bioprocessing

Postproduction processing

Q 129.

Mycorrhizae are the example of

Fungistasis

Amensalism

Antibiosis

Mutualism

Q 130.

World Ozone Day is celebrated on

\(16^{th}\) September

\(21^{st}\) April

\(5^{th}\) June

\(22^{nd}\) April

Q 131.

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

\(SO_2\)

\(CO_2\)

CO

\(O_3\)

Q 132.

Viroids differ from viruses in having :

DNA molecules with protein coat

DNA molecules without protein coat

RNA molecules with protein coat

RNA molecules without protein coat

Q 133.

Root hairs develop from the region of

Maturation

Elongation

Root cap

Meristematic activity

Q 134.

Niche is

the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

the physical space where an organism lives

all the biological factors in the organism's environment

the functional role played by the organism where it lives

Q 135.

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

Secondary consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer : 60 g

Primary producer : 10 g

Upright pyramid of numbers

Pyramid of energy

Inverted pyramid of biomass

Upright pyramid of biomass

Q 136.

Coconut fruit is a

Drupe

Berry

Nut

Capsule

Q 137.

Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to

Mesophytes

Halophytes

Psammophytes

Hydrophytes

Q 138.

In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen

Fe

Cl

Carbon

Oxygen

Q 139.

The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

Carbonyl and phosphate

Carbonyl and methyl

Hydroxyl and methyl

Carbonyl and hydroxyl

Q 140.

Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

Wildlife Safari parks

Biodiversity hot spots

Amazon rainforest

Himalayan region

Q 141.

Select the mismatch :

Pinus – Dioecious

Cycas – Dioecious

Salvinia – Heterosporous

Equisetum – Homosporous

Q 142.

Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

Nostoc

Mycobacterium

Saccharomyces

Oscillatoria

Q 143.

The Golgi complex participates in

Respiration in bacteria

Formation of secretory vesicles

Fatty acid breakdown

Activation of amino acid

Q 144.

Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

Decrease in turgidity of guard cells

Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

Q 145.

The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:

Transcription is occurring

DNA replication is occurring

The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre

The DNA double helix is exposed

Q 146.

Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

NADPH

NADH

ATP

Oxygen

Q 147.

Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

It takes part in spindle formation

It is a membrane-bound structure

Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells

It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

Q 148.

DNA fragments are

Positively charged

Negatively charged

Neutra

Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

Q 149.

Capacitation occurs in

Rete testis

Epididymis

Vas deferens

Female Reproductive tract

Q 150.

Stomatal movement is not affected by

\(O_2\) concentration

Light

Temperature

\(CO_2\) concentration

Q 151.

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

Diakinesis

Diplotene

Pachytene

Zygotene

Q 152.

Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

Forest ecosystem

Grassland ecosystem

Pond ecosystem

Lake ecosystem

Q 153.

A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunc

Down's syndrome

Klinefelter's syndrome

Turner's syndrome

Sickle cell anemia

Q 154.

Stomata in grass leaf are

Rectangular

Kidney shaped

Dumb-bell shaped

Barrel shaped

Q 155.

Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

Phellogen

Vascular cambium

Apical meristems

Axillary meristems

Q 156.

Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are

Haplontic, Diplontic

Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

Q 157.

If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

1

11

33

333

Q 158.

Plants having little or no secondary growth are

Conifers

Deciduous angiosperms

Grasses

Cycads

Q 159.

Sweet potato is a modified

Tap root

Adventitious root

Stem

Rhizome

Q 160.

The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

Fibrous joint

Cartilaginous joint

Synovial joint

Saddle joint

Q 161.

A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

Selectable marker

Vector

Plasmid

Structural gene

Q 162.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Horsetails are gymnosperms

Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous

Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms

Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus

Q 163.

Select the wrong statement :

Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans

Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes

Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae

Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera

Q 164.

Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in :

Tropical Savannah

Tropical Rain Forest

Grassland

Temperate Forest

Q 165.

The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are \(I^AI^B \) and \(I^Ai\). Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes

4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes

Q 166.

Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of

Marchantia

Fucus

Funaria

Chlamydomonas

Q 167.

After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

Agaricus

Alternaria

Neurospora

Saccharomyces

Q 168.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I Column II

a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals

b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification

c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept

d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

a-(ii) b-(iv) c-(iii) d-(i)

a-(iii) b-(ii) c- (i) d-(iv)

a-(i) b-(iv) c-(iii) d-(ii)

a-(iii) b-(iv) c-(i) d-(ii)

Q 169.

Winged pollen grains are present in

Mango

Cycas

Mustard

Pinus

Q 170.

Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics

Methanobacterium : Lactic acid

Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid

Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

Q 171.

Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for some time Select the best option from the following statements

(a) Frog is a poikilotherm

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation

(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature

(d) Heart is autoexcitable

Only (c)

Only (d)

(a) & (b)

(c) & (d)

Q 172.

Which one is wrongly matched?

Gemma cups – Marchantia

Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

Unicellular organism – Chlorella

Q 173.

Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Q 174.

Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

There are three points in the cycle where \(NAD^+\) is reduced to NADH + \(H^+\)

There is one point in the cycle where \(FAD^+\) is reduced to \(FADH_2\)

During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid

Q 175.

In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

Ostia

Oscula

Choanocytes

Mesenchymal cells

Q 176.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I Column II

a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle

b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a-i b-ii c-iii

a-i b-iii c-ii

a-iii b-i c-ii

a-ii b-i c-iii

Q 177.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I Column II

a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL

b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL volume

c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL volume d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

a-i b-iv c-ii d-iii

a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii

a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv

a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i

Q 178.

Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?

r-RNA

t-RNA

m-RNA

mi-RNA

Q 179.

The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

smooth muscles attached to the iris

ligaments attached to the iris

ligaments attached to the ciliary body

smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

Q 180.

Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

Estradiol

Ecdysone

Epinephrine

Estriol

NEET Mock Test - I

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