NEET Mock Test - I

PHYSICS

Q 1.
The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

Q 2.
A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27ºC two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320  Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27ºC is

Q 3.
An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

Q 4.
The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

Q 5.
The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

Q 6.
Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

Q 7.
A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

Q 8.
In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

Q 9.

In the circuit show in the figure, the input voltage $$V_i$$  is 20 $$V,\:V_{BE}$$  = 0 and $$V_{CE}$$ = 0. The values of $$I_B,I_C$$  and $$\beta$$  are given by

Q 10.

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination $$\theta$$ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and  $$\theta$$  for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

\

Q 11.
A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

Q 12.
The moment of the force, $$F=4\hat{i}=5\hat{j}-6\hat{k}$$ at $$(2,\;0,\;-3)$$, abiut the point $$(2,\;-2,\;-2),$$ is give by

Q 13.
A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

Q 14.
A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

Q 15.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Q 16.
Figure shows a circuit contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current 'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is

Q 17.
A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k'. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k'' : k'' is

Q 18.
Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:

Q 19.
A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because the method involves :

Q 20.
Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index '$$\mu$$'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

Q 21.
A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of $$O_2$$ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

Q 22.
An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

Q 23.
One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

Q 24.
The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are  $$x=5t-2t^2$$  and  $$y = 10t$$ respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at $$t = 2$$  s is

Q 25.
Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]

Q 26.
A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

Q 27.
In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 k$$\Omega$$. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k$$\Omega$$, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is

Q 28.
Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed $$\omega$$ about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

Q 29.

Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the folowing diagram.

Match the following
Column-1                             Column-2

P.    Process I                           a.   Asiabatic

Q.   Process II                           b.  Isobaric

R.   Process III                          c.  Isochoric

S.   Process IV                          d.  Isothermal

Q 30.
A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

Q 31.
A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system

Q 32.

For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

Q 33.
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that
can be formed out of c, G and $$e^2\over{4\pi \varepsilon_{0}}$$ is [c is velocity
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]

Q 34.
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of $$1\over{10}$$
as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

Q 35.
Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + $$\bigtriangleup$$e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then $$\bigtriangleup$$e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen $$m_h=1.67\times10^{-27}\,kg$$

Q 36.
The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

Q 37.

Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ?

Q 38.
At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) $$=2.76\times10^{-26}\;kg$$ Boltzmann's constant $$k_B=1.38\times10^{-23}\;JK^{-1}$$)

Q 39.
The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is

Q 40.
A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k$$\Omega$$ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

Q 41.
The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is

Q 42.
An electron of mass m with an initial velocity $$\overrightarrow V=V_0 \hat i\;(V_0>0)$$ enters an electric field $$\overrightarrow E=-E_0\hat i(E_0=\;constant\;>0)$$
constant > 0) at t = 0. If $$\lambda_0$$  is its
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

Q 43.
Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

Q 44.
A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg $$m^{-1}$$ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

Q 45.
A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

Q 46.
The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

Q 47.
If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant $$(k_f)$$ will be

Q 48.
Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

Q 49.
Which one is the most acidic compound?

Q 50.
Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

Q 51.
A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy $$\bigtriangleup U$$ of the gas in joules will be

Q 52.
Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

Q 53.

In the electrochemical cell :

$$Zn|ZnSO_4(0.01\,M)||CuSO_4(1.0\,M)|Cu,$$ the emf of this Daniel cell is $$E_1$$. When the concentration of $$ZnSO_4$$ is changed to 1.0 M and that of $$CuSO_4$$ changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to $$E_2$$ ?

$$(Given,{RT\over F}=0.059)$$

Q 54.
Which of the following is a sink for $$CO$$ ?

Q 55.
On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

Q 56.
The correct statement regarding electrophile is

Q 57.

The solubility of $$BaSO_4$$ in water is $$2.42\times10^{-3}\;gL^{-1}$$ at 298 K. The value of its solubility product ($$K_{sp}$$) will be

(Given molar mass of $$BaSO_4$$ = $$233\;g\;mol^{-1}$$)

Q 58.
For a given reaction, $$\bigtriangleup H$$ = 35.5 kJ$$mol^{-1}$$ and $$\bigtriangleup S$$ = $$83.6\;JK^{-1}\;mol^{-1}$$. The reaction is spontaneous at  : (Assume that $$\bigtriangleup\;H$$ and $$\bigtriangleup\;S$$do not vary with temperature

Q 59.
Given van der Waals constant for$$NH_3,\;H_2,\;O_2\;and\;CO_2$$ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

Q 60.

Pick out the correct statement with respect

$$[Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}:$$

Q 61.
Among $$CaH_2,\;BeH_2,\;BaH_2,$$ the order of ionic character is

Q 62.
Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

Q 63.
The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

Q 64.
Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with $$CN^-$$ ion. Silver is later recovered by

Q 65.

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

a.  $$60\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL+40\;mL\;{M\over{10}}NaOH$$

b.  $$55\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL\;+\;45\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;NaOH$$

c.  $$75\;mL \;{M\over{5}}HCL\;+\;25\;mL\;{M\over5}NaOH$$

d.  $$100\;mL\;{M\over{10}}\;HCL\;+\;100\;mL{M\over{10}}NaOH$$

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

Q 66.
Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?

Q 67.
The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

Q 68.

The equilibrium constants of the following are.

$$N_2\;+\;3H_2 \rightleftharpoons2NH_3\;\;\;\;K_1$$

$$N_2+O_2V\rightleftharpoons2NO\;\;\;\;K_2$$

$$H_2+{1\over2}O_2\rightarrow H_2O\;\;\;\;K_3$$

The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:

Q 69.

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,
$$A_2(g)=B_2(g)\rightleftharpoons X_2(g)\bigtriangleup_r=-X\;kj\;?$$

Q 70.
A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of .
$$10^{-2}\;s^{-1}$$ How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

Q 71.
Consider the following species :
$$CN^+,CN,NO\;and\;CN$$
Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

Q 72.
Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

Q 73.
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

Q 74.
A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. $$H_2SO_4$$. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

Q 75.
It is because of inability of $$ns^2$$ electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

Q 76.

The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions:

Q 77.
Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation $$sp^2,sp^2,sp,sp$$ from left to right atoms?

Q 78.
With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

Q 79.
Which one is a wrong statement?

Q 80.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Q 81.
When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

Q 82.

The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

Q 83.
The bond dissociation energies of $$X_2,\;Y_2$$and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\bigtriangleup$$H for the formation of XY is $$-200\;kJ\;mol^{-1}$$. The bond dissociation energy of $$X_2$$ will be

Q 84.

The IUPAC name of the compound

is ________.

Q 85.
Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

Q 86.
Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

Q 87.

With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

Q 88.

Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Q 89.
The species, having bond angles of 120° is

Q 90.
It is because of inability of $$ns^2$$ electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

Q 91.
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

Q 92.
Double fertilization is

Q 93.
Double fertilization is exhibited by

Q 94.
Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

Q 95.
Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

Q 96.
Select the mismatch :

Q 97.

Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport

Q 98.
The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

Q 99.
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

Q 100.
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

Q 101.
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

Q 102.
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

Q 103.
Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

Q 104.
The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of

Q 105.
Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

Q 106.
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

Q 107.
Select the correct match

Q 108.
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

Q 109.
Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

Q 110.
Which of the following are not polymeric?

Q 111.
The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as

Q 112.
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

Q 113.
Select the correct statement

Q 114.
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

Q 115.
A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is

Q 116.
Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma virus

Q 117.
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

Q 118.
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

Q 119.
Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

Q 121.
An example of colonial alga is

Q 122.
Offsets are produced by

Q 123.
Select the correct match

Q 124.
Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?

Q 125.
Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?

Q 126.
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

Q 127.
Natality refers to

Q 128.
The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called

Q 129.
Mycorrhizae are the example of

Q 130.
World Ozone Day is celebrated on

Q 131.
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

Q 132.
Viroids differ from viruses in having :

Q 133.
Root hairs develop from the region of

Niche is

Q 135.

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

Secondary consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer : 60 g

Primary producer : 10 g

Q 136.
Coconut fruit is a

Q 137.
Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to

Q 138.
In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen

Q 139.
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

Q 140.
Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

Q 141.
Select the mismatch :

Q 142.
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

Q 143.
The Golgi complex participates in

Q 144.
Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

Q 145.
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:

Q 146.
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

Q 147.
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

Q 148.
DNA fragments are

Q 149.
Capacitation occurs in

Q 150.
Stomatal movement is not affected by

Q 151.
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

Q 152.
Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

Q 153.
A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunc

Q 154.
Stomata in grass leaf are

Q 155.
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

Q 156.
Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are

Q 157.
If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

Q 158.
Plants having little or no secondary growth are

Q 159.
Sweet potato is a modified

Q 160.
The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

Q 161.
A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

Q 162.
Which of the following statements is correct?

Q 163.
Select the wrong statement :

Q 164.
Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in :

Q 165.
The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are $$I^AI^B$$  and $$I^Ai$$. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

Q 166.
Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of

Q 167.
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

Q 168.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I             Column II

a. Herbarium     (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals

b. Key                (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification

c. Museum         (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept

d. Catalogue      (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

Q 169.
Winged pollen grains are present in

Q 170.
Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

Q 171.

Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for some time Select the best option from the following statements

(a) Frog is a poikilotherm

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation

(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature

(d) Heart is autoexcitable

Q 172.
Which one is wrongly matched?

Q 173.
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

Q 174.
Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

Q 175.
In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

Q 176.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I                            Column II

a. Tricuspid valve                   i. Between left atrium and left ventricle

b. Bicuspid valve                   ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

c. Semilunar valve                iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

Q 177.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I                                       Column II

a. Tidal volume                           i. 2500 – 3000 mL

b. Inspiratory Reserve               ii. 1100 – 1200 mL volume

c. Expiratory Reserve               iii. 500 – 550 mL volume d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

Q 178.
Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?

Q 179.
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

Q 180.
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?