NEET Mock Test - II

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Q 1.
Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by

Q 2.

Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?

a. Dominance

b. Co-dominance

c. Multiple allele

d. Incomplete dominance

e. Polygenic inheritance

Q 3.
Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

Q 4.
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

Q 5.
Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood.

Q 6.
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

Q 7.
The water potential of pure water is

Q 8.
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

Q 9.
Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

Q 10.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

Q 11.
The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is :

Q 12.
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

Q 13.
DNA replication in bacteria occurs.

Q 14.
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

Q 15.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?

Q 16.
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

Q 17.
In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

Q 18.
Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

Q 19.
Myelin sheath is produced by

Q 20.
Select the incorrect match :

Q 21.
Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time

Q 22.
Which of these statements is incorrect?

Q 23.
Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because

Q 24.
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

Q 25.
Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

Q 26.
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

Q 27.
MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

Q 28.
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

Q 29.
Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

Q 30.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I               Column II

a. Fibrinogen        (i) Osmotic balance

b. Globulin            (ii) Blood clotting

c. Albumin            (iii) Defence mechanism

Q 31.
The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is

Q 32.
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

Q 33.
Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary \(CO_2\) acceptor in :

Q 34.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I                                Column II

(Function)                              (Part of Excretory system)

a. Ultrafiltration                       i. Henle's loop

b. Concentration                    ii. Ureter of urine

c. Transport of                       iii. Urinary bladder urine

d. Storage of                          iv. Malpighian urine corpuscle

                                               v. Proximal convoluted tubule

Q 35.
Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

Q 36.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I                               Column II 

a. Glycosuria                        i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints

b. Gout                                 ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney

c. Renal calculi                    iii. Inflammation in glomeruli

d. Glomerular                      iv. Presence of nephritis glucose in urine

Q 37.
Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :

Q 38.
An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is

Q 39.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I                                      Column II

a. Proliferative Phase                  i. Breakdown of endometrial lining

b. Secretory Phase                     ii. Follicular Phase

c. Menstruation                           iii. Luteal Phase

Q 40.
Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents

Q 41.
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA? 

Q 42.
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is 

Q 43.
A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? 

Q 44.
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by 

Q 45.
Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of 

Q 46.
All of the following are part of an operon except 

Q 47.
Which of the following statements is correct? 

Q 48.
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”? 

Q 49.
The vascular cambium normally gives rise to 

Q 50.
In a growing population of a country,

Q 51.
Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by 

Q 52.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column-I                             Column-II

a. Eutrophication                 i. UV-B radiation

b. Sanitary landfill               ii. Deforestation 

c. Snow blindness              iii. Nutrient enrichment 

d. Jhum cultivation             iv. Waste disposal

Q 53.
A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of 

Q 54.
All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except 

Q 55.
Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols? 

Q 56.

Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics? 

Q 57.

Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food Select the best option from the following statements

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment

(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments

Q 58.
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? 

Q 59.
Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments? 

Q 60.
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 

Q 61.
In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of 

Q 62.
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 

Q 63.
GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on 

Q 64.
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

Q 65.
Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of : 

Q 66.
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system 

Q 67.
Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?

Q 68.
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

Q 69.
Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into 

Q 70.
The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

Q 71.
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with 

Q 72.
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is 

Q 73.

Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation :




Q 74.
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

Q 75.

The stoichiometry and solubility product of a salt with the solubility curve given below is, respectively

Q 76.

In the following reaction A is:

Q 77.

A graph of vapour pressure and temperature for three different liquids X, Y and Z is shown below The following inferences are made

(1) X has higher intermolecular interactions compared to Y.

(2) X has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y.

(3) Z has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y.

The correct inference(s) is/are

Q 78.
Amongst the following, the form of water with the lowest ionic conductance at 298 K is:

Q 79.

The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is

Q 80.

Among the statements (a)–(d), the correct ones are :

(a) Lithium has the highest hydration enthalpy among the alkali metals.

(b) Lithium chloride is insoluble in pyridine.

(c) Lithium cannot form ethynide upon its reaction with ethyne.

(d) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with \(H_2O\).

Q 81.
The complex that can show fac– and mer– isomers is

Q 82.
Which polymer has 'chiral' monomer(s)?

Q 83.
The rate of a certain biochemical reaction at physiological temperature (T) occurs \( 10^6\) times faster with enzyme than without. The change in the activation energy upon adding enzyme is

Q 84.
Which of the following reactions will not produce a racemic product?

Q 85.
The first ionization energy (in kJ/mol) of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively, are

Q 86.
Which of the following has the shortest C–Cl bond?

Q 87.
The third ionization enthalpy is minimum for

Q 88.

In the Figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is an equilibrium with product B (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is:

Q 89.

Among the gases (a) – (e), the gases that cause greenhouse effect are

\((a) CO_2 \)    \((b) H_2O \)     \((c) CFCs \)       \((d) O_2 \)     \((e) O_3\)

Q 90.
The number of  \( sp^2 \) hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is:

Q 91.

The major products A and B in the following reactions are

Q 92.
A mixture of gases\( O_2, H_2\) and CO are taken in a closed vessel containing charcoal. The graph that respresents the correct behaviour of pressure with time is:

Q 93.

The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are


Q 94.

A, B and C are three biomolecules. The results of the tests performed on them are given below:

  Molisch’s Test Barfoed Test  Biuret Test
A Positive Negative Negative
B Positive Positive Negative
C Negative Negative Positive

A, B and C are respectively:

Q 95.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C–OH bond length Methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol

Q 96.

Consider the following reactions

Q 97.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C–OH bond length Methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol

Q 98.
A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3-methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63ºC while the other boils at 60ºC. What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be distilled out first?

Q 99.
The first and second ionisation enthalpies of a metal are 496 and 4560 kJ \(mol–^1\) , respectively. How many moles of HCl and \(H_2SO_4,\) respectively, will be needed to react completely with 1 mole of the metal hydroxide?

Q 100.

For the Balmer series in the spectrum of H atom,\(\vec{v}=R_H[\frac{1}{n^2_1}-{\frac{1}{n^2_2}}]\)the correct statements among (I) to (IV) are

(I) As wavelength decreases, the lines in the series converge

(II) The integer n1 is equal to 2

(III) The lines of longest wavelength correspond to n2 = 3

(IV) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be calculated from wave number of these lines

Q 101.

The decreasing order of basicity of the following amines is:

Q 102.
The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in \(S_2O_8^{-2} \)– and the number of bonds between sulphur and sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are

Q 103.

The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moments of the following complexes is :

(I) \([Cr(H_2O)_6]Br_2\)

(II) \(Na_4[Fe(CN)_6] \)

(III) \(Na_3[Fe(C_2O_4)_3](Δ0 > P) \)

(IV) \((Et_4N)_2[CoCl_4]\)

Q 104.
The strength of an aqueous NaOH solution is most accurately determined by titrating (Note consider that an appropriate indicator is used)

Q 105.
The reaction of \(H_3N_3B_3Cl_3\)(A) with\( LiBH_4\) in tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic benzene (B). Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to \(H_3N_3B_3(Me)_3.\) Compounds (B) and (C) respectively, are:

Q 106.
As per Hardy–Schulze formulation, the flocculation values of the following for ferric hydroxide sol are in the order

Q 107.

A particle moving with velocity \(\overrightarrow{V}\) is acted by three forces shown by the vector trianglePQR. The velocity of the particle will :

Q 108.
Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by \(X_{P}(t)=at\;+\;bt^2\;and\;X_Q(t)=ft-t^2\). At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

Q 109.
Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is :

Q 110.

A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at \(60^\circ\) and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

Q 111.
A 800 turn coil of effective area \(0.05\;m^2\) is kept perpendicularto a magneticfield \(5\times10^{-5}\) When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will be:

Q 112.
A particle moves from a point \((-2\hat{i}+5\hat{j})\;to\;(4\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\) when a force of \((4\hat{i}+3\hat{j})\) is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

Q 113.
A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre

Q 114.
A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation \(\Bigg({E_{sphere}\over{E_{cylinder}}}\Bigg)\) will be

Q 115.
A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in ydirection where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is

Q 116.
A rectangular film of liquid is extended from \((4\;cm\times2\;cm)\;to\;(5\;cm\times\;4\;cm)\). If the work done is \(3\times10^{-4}\), the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

Q 117.
A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth ?

Q 118.
A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be

Q 119.
Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii \(r_A\) and \(r_B\) with speed \(V_A\) and \(V_B\) respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

Q 120.
A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is

Q 121.

Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero internal resistance. The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :

Q 122.
Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n-1),n,(n+1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

Q 123.
A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

Q 124.
A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after \(2\pi\) revolutions is

Q 125.

A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants \(k_1,k_2,k_3\;and\;k_4\) as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

Q 126.
A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by \(60^{\circ}\) is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

Q 127.
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance \(20\;\mu F\) is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the ate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.

Q 128.
The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

Q 129.
A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be : \((g=10m/s^2)\)

Q 130.
An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

Q 131.
An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is, (nearly) :\(m_e=9\times10^{-31}\;kg\)

Q 132.

The potential difference \((V_A-V_B)\) between the points A and B in the given figure is

Q 133.
The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by \(y=A_0+Asin\omega t+Bcos\omega t\)  Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

Q 134.
Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

Q 135.

The correctBoolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :

Q 136.
Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength \((\lambda_0)\) of the emitted X-ray is

Q 137.
When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° B with horizontal, it can travel a distance\(X_1\) along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel \(X_2\) distance. Then\(X_1\) : \(X_2\) will be:

Q 138.
If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

Q 139.
Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

Q 140.

What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

Q 141.
When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is :

Q 142.
For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 k Ω then the input signal voltage is

Q 143.
Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

Q 144.
The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

Q 145.
A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in temperature. The length of aluminium rod is : \(\alpha_{Cu}=1.7\times10^{-5}K^{-1}\;and\;\alpha_{AI}=2.2\times10^{-5}K^{-1}\)

Q 146.
A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

Q 147.
Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow

Q 148.
An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of \(3.57\times10^{-2}\;T\), If the value of e/m is \(1.76\times10^{11}C/kg\) the frequency of revolution of the electron is

Q 149.
A small hole of area of cross-section \(2\;mm^2\) is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height \(2\;m\). Taking g = \(10\;m/s^2\) , the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly

Q 150.
A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

Q 151.
A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:

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